Occupational Health and Safety (Major Hazard Facilities) Regulations
2000
Occupational Health and Safety (Major Hazard Facilities) Regulations
2000
S.R. No. 50/2000
TABLE OF PROVISIONS
Regulation Page
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THIS PAGE IS TO BE MASKED
STATUTORY RULES 2000
S.R. No. 50/2000
Occupational Health and Safety Act 1985
Dangerous Goods Act 1985
Occupational Health and Safety (Major Hazard Facilities) Regulations
2000
The Governor in Council makes the following Regulations:
Dated: 22 June 2000
Responsible Minister:
ROBERT CAMERON
Minister for WorkCover
HELEN DOYE
Clerk of the Executive Council
PART 1--PRELIMINARY
101. Objective
The objective of these Regulations is to provide for the safe operation of
major hazard facilities in order to--
-
- (a) reduce the likelihood of a major incident occurring;
-
- (b) reduce the consequences to health and safety and damage to property in
the event of a major incident.
102. Authorising provisions
-
- (1) This Part is made under section 59 of the Occupational Health and
Safety Act 1985 and under section 52 of the Dangerous Goods Act
1985.
-
- (2) Parts 2 to 8 and Schedules 1 to 5 are made under section 59 of the
Occupational Health and Safety Act 1985.
-
- (3) Parts 9 and 10 are made under section 52 of the Dangerous Goods Act
1985.
103. Commencement
-
- (1) These Regulations (other than regulation 801) come into operation on 1
July 2000.
-
- (2) Regulation 801 comes into operation on 1 September 2000.
104. Definitions[1]
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-
- (1) In these Regulations--
"Act" means the Occupational Health and Safety Act 1985;
"ADG Code" means the Transport Code within the meaning of the
Dangerous Goods Act 1985;
"Authority" means the Victorian WorkCover Authority established under
section 18 of the Accident Compensation Act 1985;
"class" has the same meaning as in the ADG Code;
"dangerous goods" means dangerous goods within the meaning of the
Dangerous Goods Act 1985;
"emergency services" means the persons in management or control of the
fire authority, police authority and ambulance service;
"facility" means any building or other structure on land--
-
- (a) which is a workplace; and
-
- (b) at which Schedule 1 materials are present or likely to be
present for any purpose;
"hazard" means any activity,
procedure, plant, process, substance, situation or any other circumstance that
could cause, or contribute to causing, a major incident;
"Hazchem Code" has the same meaning as in the ADG Code;
"local community" means--
-
- (a) persons who reside in; and (b) persons in management and control of
workplaces, or of places where persons gather for recreational, cultural or
sporting purposes, located in--
the area surrounding the major
hazard facility, as indicated on the map forming part of the emergency plan
for the major hazard facility in accordance with clause 1.2 of Schedule
3;
"major hazard facility" means--
-
- (a) a facility where Schedule 1 materials are present or
likely to be present in a quantity exceeding their threshold
quantity; or
-
- (b) a facility, not being a facility to which paragraph (a)
applies, determined by the Authority to be a major hazard
facility under regulation 705;
"major incident" means an
uncontrolled incident, including an emission, loss of containment,
escape, fire, explosion or release of energy, that--
-
- (a) involves Schedule 1 materials; and
-
- (b) poses a serious and immediate risk to health and
safety;
"modification", in relation to a major hazard
facility, includes--
-
- (a) a change to any plant, processes or substances used in processes,
including the introduction of new plant, processes or substances;
-
- (b) a change to the quantity of Schedule 1 materials present or
likely to be present, including the introduction of any new Schedule
1 materials;
-
- (c) a change to the Safety Management System--
that has the
effect of--
-
- (d) creating a hazard that has not previously been identified; or
-
- (e) increasing the likelihood of a major incident occurring;
or
-
- (f) in relation to any major incident that might occur,
increasing--
-
- (i) its magnitude; or
-
- (ii) the severity of its consequences to persons both on-site and
off-site;
"operator", in relation to a
facility, means the employer who has management or control of the
facility;
"Packing Group" has the same meaning as in the ADG Code;
"Safety Management System" means a Safety Management System
established under regulation 301;
"Safety Case" means a Safety Case prepared or revised under
Part 4;
"Schedule 1 material" means a material mentioned in Table 1 of
Schedule 1 or a material that belongs to one or more of the types, classes and
categories mentioned in Table 2 of Schedule 1;"threshold quantity", in
relation to Schedule 1 materials, means the threshold quantity for
those materials determined in accordance with Schedule 1.
-
- (2) Any reference in these Regulations to Schedule 1 materials
likely to be present at a facility is a reference to the maximum
quantity of the Schedule 1 materials that would meet the capacity of
the facility, including--
-
- (a) the maximum capacity of process vessels and interconnecting piping
systems to contain the materials;
-
- (b) the maximum capacity of storage tanks and vessels used for the
materials;
-
- (c) the maximum storage capacity of other storage areas at the
facility that could contain the materials;
-
- (d) the maximum capacity of pipelines outside process areas to contain
the materials;
-
- (e) the maximum quantity of the materials that would, in the event of a
failure, escape onto the premises of the facility from a pipeline
that is situated off the premises but connected to the facility;
-
- (f) the maximum quantity of the materials loaded into or onto, or
unloaded from, vehicles, trailers, rolling stock and ships that are from
time to time present at the facility in the course of the
facility's operations.
105. Application of RegulationsThese Regulations do not apply
to--
-
- (a) any building or other structure on land to which section 60(2) of the
Occupational Health and Safety Act 1985 applies; or
-
- (b) pipelines in respect of which a licence to construct and operate a
pipeline is issued under the Pipelines Act 1967; or
-
- (c) distribution pipelines within the meaning of the Gas Industry Act
1994.
106. Application of Regulations to
employees
For the purposes of these Regulations (except Part 6)--
-
- (a) "employee" includes an independent contractor engaged by the
operator and any employees of the independent contractor; and
-
- (b) the duties of the operator of a major hazard facility
extend to such an independent contractor and the independent contractor's
employees, in relation to matters over which the operator--
-
- (i) has control; or
-
- (ii) would have had control but for any agreement between the
operator and the independent contractor to the contrary.
107.
Application of Parts 3, 5 and 9
-
- (1) Subject to this regulation, Parts 3, 5 and 9 do not apply to and in
relation to a major hazard facility that is registered under Part 7.
-
- (2) The operator of a registered major hazard facility must
comply with the provisions of Parts 3, 5 and 9 so far as is practicable.
-
- (3) This regulation ceases to have effect 30 months after 1 July
2000.
_______________
PART 2--GENERAL PROVISIONS
201. Authority may require information
-
- (1) The Authority may by written notice require the operator
of a facility or a person who intends to be the operator of a
facility to provide such information concerning the operation of the
facility as the Authority reasonably requires for the purposes
of these Regulations.
-
- (2) A notice under sub-regulation (1) must specify--
-
- (a) the information required;
-
- (b) the date by which the information must be provided.
(3) A
person who receives a notice under sub-regulation (1) must provide the
information in accordance with the notice.
202. Processes for certain decisions of Authority
-
- (1) This regulation relates to a decision of the Authority in
relation to--
-
- (a) the refusal to grant, renew or transfer a licence under Part 8;
-
- (b) the refusal to grant a registration under regulation 707(2);
-
- (c) the variation of the terms and conditions upon which a licence under
Part 8 was granted;
-
- (d) the cancellation or suspension of a licence under Part 8.
(2)
The Authority must not make a decision to which this regulation relates
unless the Authority has conducted an inquiry under this regulation.
-
- (3) The Authority must give to any person who may be affected by
the decision written notice of the Authority's intention to conduct an
inquiry.
-
- (4) The notice must--
-
- (a) state the subject of the inquiry and the reasons for conducting it;
-
- (b) invite the person notified to make submissions in relation to the
inquiry.
(5) The Authority must consider any submissions made
by the person notified.
-
- (6) If the Authority makes the decision, the Authority must
send to the person a written notification, which must--
-
- (a) state the decision;
-
- (b) state the reasons for the decision;
-
- (c) specify the date on which the decision is to take effect.
(7)
The effective date specified under sub-regulation (6)(c) must be not less than
30 days after the operator is given the notification. (8) If the
Authority makes a decision to which this regulation relates, any person
who may be affected by the decision may apply to the Victorian Civil and
Administrative Tribunal for a review of the decision.
-
- (9) If a person applies for a review of a decision, the decision is stayed
pending the determination of the application for review.
-
- (10) In this regulation, the expression "any person who may be
affected" has the same meaning and effect as in section 59(6) of the
Act.
203. Exemption from Parts 3 to 8
-
- (1) The Authority may exempt a person from a requirement in Part 3,
4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 if the Authority is satisfied that the person is
capable of achieving a level of health and safety that is at least equivalent
to the level that would be achieved if the requirement had been complied with.
-
- (2) If the Authority grants an exemption under sub-regulation (1),
the Authority may attach such terms and conditions as the
Authority considers reasonable, including terms and conditions in
relation to--
-
- (a) the commencement and duration of the exemption;
-
- (b) control measures to be adopted by the person to whom the exemption
is granted for the elimination or reduction of risk to health and safety
associated with major incidents;
-
- (c) a requirement that the person exempted give notice of the exemption
and of the terms and conditions of the exemption to any specified person who
may be affected.
(3) If a person requests an exemption, the
Authority must not refuse to grant the exemption unless the
Authority has--
-
- (a) invited the person to make written submissions;
-
- (b) specified a date, not less than 14 days after the date of the
invitation, by which the person may make the submissions;
-
- (c) considered any submissions that are made by the specified
date.
-
- (4) If the Authority grants an exemption under this regulation, the
Authority must cause a notice of the exemption, including any terms and
conditions attached to the exemption, to be published in the Government
Gazette.
_______________
PART 3--SAFETY DUTIES OF OPERATORS
301. Safety Management System
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must establish
and implement a Safety Management System for the major hazard
facility.
-
- (2) The operator must use the Safety Management System as
the primary means of ensuring the safe operation of the major hazard
facility.
-
- (3) The Safety Management System so established must--
-
- (a) provide a comprehensive and integrated management system for all
aspects of control measures adopted under this Part;
-
- (b) be documented;
-
- (c) be so set out and expressed that its contents are readily accessible
and comprehensible to persons who use it.
(4) The document must--
-
- (a) state the operator's safety policy, including the
operator's broad aims in relation to the safe operation of the
major hazard facility;
-
- (b) state the operator's specific safety objectives;
-
- (c) describe the systems and procedures by which these objectives are to
be achieved;
-
- (d) describe how compliance with this Part and Part 5 is to be achieved;
-
- (e) include all of the matters specified in Schedule 2.
-
- (5) The operator must review, and as necessary revise, the
Safety Management System if--
-
- (a) a modification is made to the major hazard facility;
-
- (b) a major incident occurs at the major hazard facility;
or
-
- (c) whether or not the circumstances mentioned in paragraphs (a) or (b)
arise, at least once each 5 years.
(6) An operator of a
major hazard facility who fails to comply with this regulation is
guilty of an indictable offence.
302. Identification of major incidents and hazards
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must--
-
- (a) identify all major incidents which could occur at the
major hazard facility; and
-
- (b) identify all hazards that could cause, or contribute to
causing, those major incidents.
(2) The operator must
document all aspects of any identification made under this regulation,
including--
-
- (a) the methods and criteria used for identifying major incidents
and hazards;
-
- (b) external conditions of any kind under which those hazards
might give rise to a major incident.
303. Safety Assessment
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must conduct a
comprehensive and systematic Safety Assessment in relation to all potential
major incidents and all hazards that could cause, or contribute
to causing, those potential major incidents.
-
- (2) A Safety Assessment must involve an investigation and analysis, of the
hazards and major incidents, that provide the operator
with a detailed understanding of all aspects of risk to health and safety
associated with major incidents, including--
-
- (a) the nature of each hazard and major incident;
-
- (b) the likelihood of each hazard causing a major
incident;
-
- (c) in the event of a major incident occurring--
-
- (i) its magnitude; and
-
- (ii) the severity of its consequences to persons both on-site and
off-site;
(d) the range of control measures considered.
(3)
In conducting a Safety Assessment, the operator must--
-
- (a) consider hazards cumulatively as well as individually; and
-
- (b) use assessment methodologies (whether quantitative or qualitative,
or both) that are appropriate to the hazards being
considered.
(4) The operator must document all aspects of the
Safety Assessment, and the documentation must--
-
- (a) describe the methodology used in the investigation and analysis;
-
- (b) state all the matters specified in paragraphs (a) to (d) in
sub-regulation (2);
-
- (c) contain judgments as to the matters specified in paragraphs (b) and
(c) of sub-regulation (2), and reasons for those judgments;
-
- (d) contain, in relation to the range of control measures considered--
-
- (i) statements as to their viability and effectiveness; and
-
- (ii) reasons for selecting certain control measures and rejecting
others; and
(e) be made available for inspection by the
Authority or an inspector.
304. Control measures
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must adopt
control measures which eliminate or, if it is not practicable to eliminate,
which reduce so far as is practicable, risk to health and safety.
-
- (2) In sub-regulation (1), "risk to health and safety" means--
-
- (a) the likelihood of any major incident occurring;
-
- (b) in the event of a major incident occurring--
-
- (i) its magnitude; and
-
- (ii) the severity of its consequences to persons both on-site and
off-site.
(3) An operator of a major hazard
facility who fails to comply with this regulation is guilty of an
indictable offence.
305. Emergency planning
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must prepare an
emergency plan for the major hazard facility.
-
- (2) The emergency plan so prepared must be included among the control
measures adopted under regulation 304.
-
- (3) The emergency plan must--
-
- (a) address both the on-site and off-site consequences of a major
incident occurring;
-
- (b) include all the matters specified in Schedule 3;
-
- (c) be prepared in conjunction with--
-
- (i) the emergency services who have responsibility for the area
in which the major hazard facility is located; and
-
- (ii) in relation to the off-site consequences of a major
incident occurring, the municipal council or councils within the area
occupied by the local community.
(4) After preparing
an emergency plan, the operator must--
-
- (a) keep a copy of the emergency plan at the major hazard
facility for use by the emergency services with whom the
operator consulted under sub-regulation (3)(c)(i); (b) inform those
emergency services of the location of the copy so kept;
-
- (c) forward copies of the plan to those emergency
services.
(5) The operator must, at suitable intervals not
exceeding three years, test the emergency plan, and in so doing must take all
necessary steps to arrange for participation in the tests by the emergency
services with whom the operator consulted under sub-regulation
(3)(c)(i).
-
- (6) An operator who has prepared an emergency plan must put the
emergency plan into effect without delay if--
-
- (a) a major incident occurs; or
-
- (b) an uncontrolled event or incident occurs which could reasonably be
expected to lead to a major incident.
(7) Immediately after
becoming aware of the occurrence of a major incident, the
operator of a major hazard facility must notify--
-
- (a) the emergency services with whom the operator
consulted under sub-regulation (3)(c)(i);
-
- (b) if no emergency plan has been prepared, the emergency
services who have responsibility for the area in which the major
hazard facility is located.
306. Review
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility, who has--
-
- (a) made an identification under regulation 302; or
-
- (b) conducted a Safety Assessment under regulation 303; or
-
- (c) adopted control measures under regulation 304--
must review, and as necessary revise, those matters so as to ensure that the
control measures adopted are such that the operator continues to comply
with regulation 304(1).
-
- (2) Reviews and revisions under this regulation must be conducted--
-
- (a) at the direction of the Authority;
-
- (b) before a modification of the major hazard facility;
-
- (c) after a major incident occurs at the major hazard
facility;
-
- (d) when an effectiveness test indicates a deficiency in a control
measure;
-
- (e) whether or not the circumstances mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (d)
arise, at least once each 5 years.
(3) The operator must
review and revise the emergency plan for the major hazard facility in
conjunction with--
-
- (a) the emergency services who have responsibility for the area
in which the major hazard facility is located; and
-
- (b) in relation to the off-site consequences of a major incident
occurring, the municipal council or councils within the area occupied by the
local community.
(4) An operator of a major hazard
facility who fails to comply with this regulation is guilty of an
indictable offence.
307. Safety role for employees
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must develop a
role for the operator's employees, including the specific
procedures they would be required to follow, to assist the operator in
relation to--
-
- (a) making an identification of major incidents and
hazards under regulation 302;
-
- (b) conducting or reviewing a Safety Assessment under regulation 303;
-
- (c) adopting or reviewing control measures under regulations 304 and
306;
-
- (d) establishing and implementing a Safety Management System
under regulation 301;
(2) The operator must review the role
for employees developed under this regulation whenever there is any
change of circumstances, including a modification to the major
hazard facility, that would require additional or different knowledge and
skills on the part of the employees to perform the role. (3) In
developing or reviewing the employees' role under this regulation, the
operator must, if practicable, consult with the health and safety
representative of each designated work group to which the employees
belong.
_______________
PART 4--SAFETY CASE
401. Operator to provide Safety CaseThe operator of a
major hazard facility must, in order to obtain or renew a licence under
Part 8--
-
- (a) prepare, and revise, a Safety Case in accordance with this
Part; and
-
- (b) provide the Safety Case to the Authority.
402. Content of
Safety Case
-
- (1) A Safety Case prepared or revised under this Part must--
-
- (a) contain a summary of the content of the Safety Management
System established under regulation 301;
-
- (b) contain a copy of the documentation prepared under regulation 302(2)
and 303(4);
-
- (c) include the information specified in Schedule 4.
(2) The
content of a Safety Case must be sufficient for the purposes of--
-
- (a) demonstrating that the Safety Management System provides a
comprehensive and integrated management system for all aspects of control
measures adopted in relation to hazards and major incidents;
-
- (b) demonstrating the adequacy of the control measures adopted or
reviewed under regulations 304 and 306.
(3) A Safety Case must
also contain a signed statement by which the operator certifies that--
-
- (a) the summary of the Safety Management System is an accurate
summary;
-
- (b) as a consequence of conducting a Safety Assessment under regulation
303, the operator has a detailed understanding of all aspects of
risks to health and safety associated with major incidents;
-
- (c) the control measures adopted in accordance with regulation 304 are
such as to eliminate or, if it is not practicable to eliminate, to reduce so
far as is practicable the matters mentioned in regulation 304(2);
-
- (d) the persons who participate in the implementation of the Safety
Management System have the knowledge and skills necessary to enable them
to perform their allocated tasks and discharge their allocated
responsibilities in relation to the Safety Management
System.
(4) If the operator is a corporation, the
statement under sub-regulation (3) must--
-
- (a) if the Chief Executive of the corporation resides in Victoria, be
signed by the Chief Executive;
-
- (b) otherwise be signed by the Chief Executive of the corporation and by
the most senior officer of the corporation resident in Victoria.
403. Co-ordination of Safety Cases
-
- (1) When required by the Authority to do so, the operators
of two or more major hazard facilities must co-ordinate the preparation
of their respective Safety Cases.
-
- (2) In order to comply with sub-regulation (1), each operator must
provide to the other information concerning any circumstances at his or her
major hazard facility that could constitute a hazard in relation to the
other major hazard facility.
-
- (3) The Authority may make a requirement under this regulation if
it believes that the co-ordinated preparation of Safety Cases is
necessary in the interests of the safe operation or the effective safety
management of either or both major hazard facilities.
-
- (4) An operator of a major hazard facility, who has
co-ordinated the preparation of a Safety Case in accordance with this
regulation, must include in the Safety Case the operator
prepares reference to the information given by, or given to, the
operator under sub-regulation (2).
404. Revision
-
- (1) An operator of a major hazard facility, who revises
control measures under regulation 306, must make a corresponding revision of
the Safety Case for the major hazard facility.
-
- (2) An operator of a major hazard facility, who intends to
apply for the renewal of a licence under Part 8, must revise the Safety
Case for the major hazard facility.
-
- (3) A Safety Case revised under this regulation must--
-
- (a) be prepared in accordance with regulation 402;
-
- (b) include specific reference to any changes in relation to the matters
specified in regulation 402(1).
(4) A Safety Case revised
under this regulation, or revised by the operator on the
operator's own initiative, must be provided to the Authority as
soon as possible after the revision is made.
_______________
PART 5--CONSULTING, INFORMING, INSTRUCTING AND TRAINING
501. Consultation with health and safety representatives
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility, who is--
-
- (a) making an identification of major incidents and hazards
under regulation 302; or
-
- (b) conducting or reviewing a Safety Assessment under regulation 303; or
-
- (c) adopting or reviewing control measures under regulations 304 and
306; or
-
- (d) establishing and implementing a Safety Management System
under regulation 301; or
-
- (e) preparing or revising a Safety Case under Part
4--
must, if practicable, consult with the health and safety representative of
each designated work group to which the operator's employees
belong in relation to the matters referred to in sub-regulation (1).
-
- (2) If an employee of an operator gives information under
regulation 601(c), the operator must inform the employee
of what, if any, investigative or other action has been taken in response to
the information.
502. Informing, instructing and training employees
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must provide the
operator's employees with such information, instruction and
training in relation to--
-
- (a) all major incidents that could occur at the major hazard
facility;
-
- (b) all hazards that could cause, or contribute to causing, those
major incidents;
-
- (c) the implementation of control measures adopted under regulation 304;
-
- (d) the content and operation of the Safety Management System
generally--
as are necessary to enable the employees to perform their work
(including the actions required of the employees under the emergency plan
and the safety role developed for employees under regulation 307) in a
manner that is safe and without risks to health.
-
- (2) The operator must ensure that the information, instruction and
training provided under this regulation are recorded, monitored, reviewed and
revised in order to remain relevant and effective.
503. Further information and access to documentsThe
operator of a major hazard facility must--
-
- (a) inform employees about the content of the major hazard
facility's Safety Case, including any revision to the Safety Case;
-
- (b) ensure that the Safety Management System, the Safety
Case and the emergency plan, or copies of these documents, are readily
accessible to the operator's employees.
504.
Non-employees at the facility
The operator of a major hazard facility must ensure that any
person other than an employee who enters the major hazard facility
is, as soon as possible after the person enters--
-
- (a) informed about the hazards at the major hazard facility;
-
- (b) instructed in the safety precautions the person should take while at
the major hazard facility;
-
- (c) instructed in the actions the person should take in the event of an
emergency plan being activated while he or she is at the major hazard
facility.
505. Local community
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility must ensure that
the local community is provided with information concerning the safety
of the major hazard facility.
-
- (2) Persons to whom information is given under this regulation must
include the municipal council or councils within the area occupied by the
local community.
-
- (3) Information provided under this regulation--
-
- (a) must include--
-
- (i) a summary of the Safety Case for the major hazard
facility; and
-
- (ii) a copy of the licence for the major hazard facility,
including the terms and conditions attached to the licence;
(b)
unless already included in the Safety Case summary, must include--
-
- (i) the name and location of the major hazard facility;
-
- (ii) the name, position and telephone number of the contact person
from whom further information can be obtained;
-
- (iii) a general description of the operations at the major hazard
facility, including a description of the Schedule 1 materials
present or likely to be present at the major hazard
facility;
-
- (iv) a general description of hazards identified at the
major hazard facility and of major incidents they have
potential to cause;
-
- (v) a general description of the magnitude of major incidents
that could occur at the major hazard facility and of the severity
of the consequences to health and safety;
-
- (vi) the means by which the local community will be notified of
the occurrence of a major incident;
-
- (vii) the action that members of the local community should
take (in accordance with the emergency plan for the major hazard
facility) in the event of a major incident
occurring.
(4) Information provided under this regulation
must--
-
- (a) be so presented and so expressed that it can be readily understood
by persons who are not familiar with the major hazard facility and
its operations;
-
- (b) be revised in the event of any modification being made to the
major hazard facility;
-
- (c) be sent in documentary form to any community or public library
serving the local community.
-
- (5) The operator of a major hazard facility, who is
preparing or revising a Safety Case under Part 4, must consult with the
municipal council or councils within the area occupied by the local
community in relation to all matters that could affect the health and
safety of members of the local community in the event of a major
incident occurring.
506. Further information on request
-
- (1) A person who, on reasonable grounds, believes that the occurrence of a
major incident at a major hazard facility might adversely affect
his or her health or safety, may in writing request the operator of the
major hazard facility to provide information concerning the safety of
the major hazard facility.
-
- (2) The operator of a major hazard facility must comply with
a request made under this regulation by providing the person making the
request with a copy of the information provided to the local community
under regulation 505.
_______________
PART 6--DUTIES OF EMPLOYEES
601. Duties of employees at major hazard facilities
-
- (1) An employee at a major hazard facility must--
-
- (a) follow the operator's procedures relating to the prevention
and control of major incidents within the major hazard
facility;
-
- (b) follow the operator's emergency procedures in the event of a
major incident occurring or in the event of the emergency procedures
being activated;
-
- (c) immediately inform the operator of any circumstance of any
kind that he or she considers capable of leading to a major incident;
-
- (d) without placing the employee or any other person at risk, take
corrective action under those prevention and control and emergency
procedures even if such corrective action could interrupt the operation of
the major hazard facility;
-
- (e) notify his or her supervisor of any corrective action
taken.
(2) Anything done in good faith by an employee under
sub-regulation (1) is to be taken to be done in the course of the employee's
employment.
_______________
PART 7--REGISTRATION
701. Notification for existing major hazard facilities
-
- (1) A person who, on 1 July 2000, is the operator of a major
hazard facility must notify the Authority in order to obtain
registration of the major hazard facility under this Part.
-
- (2) Notification under this regulation must be given by 1 August 2000.
702. Notification by intended operator of major hazard facility
-
- (1) A person who has an intention to operate a major hazard
facility may notify the Authority in order to obtain registration
for the proposed major hazard facility under this Part.
-
- (2) For the purposes of this regulation, a person "has an intention to
operate a major hazard facility" where--
-
- (a) the person is operating a facility and intends to make
alterations to the facility so that Schedule 1 materials
present or likely to be present will be in a quantity that exceeds
their threshold quantity; or
-
- (b) the person intends to operate a facility, where Schedule 1
materials present or likely to be present will be in a quantity
that exceeds their threshold quantity, which proposed major hazard
facility is--
-
- (i) designed but not constructed; or
-
- (ii) under construction; or
-
- (iii) constructed but not yet operational.
703. Operators of certain facilities to notify Authority
-
- (1) A person who is the operator of a facility at which
Schedule 1 materials are present or likely to be present in a
quantity exceeding 10% of their threshold quantity but less than their
threshold quantity must notify the Authority.
-
- (2) Notification under this regulation must be given within 30 days after
the operator becomes aware, or should reasonably have been or become
aware, of the circumstances giving rise to the obligation to notify.
-
- (3) When the Authority receives and considers the notification, the
Authority may make a determination under regulation 705.
704. Content of notification
-
- (1) Notification given under this Part must--
-
- (a) be in writing;
-
- (b) contain the particulars specified in sub-regulations (2) and
(3).
(2) The particulars to be included in a notification in
accordance with sub-regulation (1) are--
-
- (a) in relation to the facility itself--
-
- (i) if the operator is a corporation--the full corporate name,
trading name, Australian Company Number, nature of business, registered
address and relevant place of business;
-
- (ii) if the operator is a natural person--the person's full
name, the nature of the person's business, residential address and
business address;
-
- (iii) the location (or the proposed location) of the facility;
-
- (iv) a brief description of the nature of the facility,
including general site activities and production and auxiliary processes
involving Schedule 1 materials;
-
- (v) the number of employees expected to be present at the
facility;
-
- (vi) a description of land use in the area surrounding the
facility;
(b) in relation to the Schedule 1 materials
and other materials at the facility or likely to be at the
facility--
-
- (i) the quantity of each Schedule 1 materials present or
likely to be present at the facility;
-
- (ii) in relation to each such material--its name and such further
information as is necessary to clearly identify it;
-
- (iii) details of the information and method used by the person giving
the notification to determine the percentage of the threshold
quantity of the materials present or likely to be present; (iv)
the names and quantities of any dangerous goods, which are not
Schedule 1 materials but which are present or likely to be
present at the facility in quantities that could increase the
likelihood of a major incident occurring or the severity of the
consequences to health and safety in the event of a major incident
occurring.
-
- (3) If the notification is given under regulation 702, the notification
must contain--
-
- (a) the information specified in sub-regulation (2) with all necessary
adaptations to the circumstances described in regulation 702(2) which give
rise to the right to notify; and
-
- (b) the date on which the facility or proposed facility is
expected to operate as a major hazard facility.
705. Authority may determine facility to be a major hazard
facility
-
- (1) If the Authority receives notification under regulation 703 and
forms the opinion that there is a potential for a major incident to
occur at the facility, having regard to--
-
- (a) the quantity or combination of Schedule 1 materials present
or likely to be present at the facility; or
-
- (b) an activity within the facility involving those
materials--
the Authority may determine that the facility is a major
hazard facility.
-
- (2) If--
-
- (a) the existence of a facility at which Schedule 1
materials are present or likely to be present in a quantity
exceeding 10% of their threshold quantity but less than their
threshold quantity comes to the notice of the Authority
otherwise than by notification under regulation 703; and
-
- (b) the Authority forms the opinion that there is a potential for
a major incident to occur at the facility, having regard to--
-
- (i) the quantity or combination of Schedule 1 materials present
or likely to be present at the facility; or
-
- (ii) an activity within the facility involving those
materials--
the Authority may determine that the facility is a major
hazard facility.
706. Inquiry before making determination
-
- (1) The Authority must not make a determination under regulation
705 unless the Authority has conducted an inquiry under this
regulation.
-
- (2) The Authority must give the operator of the
facility written notice of the Authority's intention to conduct
an inquiry.
-
- (3) The notice must--
-
- (a) state the subject of the inquiry and the reasons for conducting it;
-
- (b) invite the operator to make submissions in relation to the
inquiry.
(4) The Authority must consider any submissions made
by the operator.
-
- (5) If the Authority makes a determination, the Authority
must send to the operator a written notification, which must--
-
- (a) state the decision to make the determination;
-
- (b) state the reasons for the decision;
-
- (c) specify the date on which the determination is to take
effect.
(6) The effective date specified under sub-regulation (5)(c)
must be not less than 30 days after the operator is given the
notification.
707. Registration of major hazard facilities
-
- (1) If the Authority receives notification under regulation 701,
the Authority must immediately register the major hazard
facility.
-
- (2) If the Authority receives a notification under regulation 702,
the Authority may, as soon as practicable after receiving the
notification, register the facility or the proposed facility as
a major hazard facility.
-
- (3) If the Authority determines a facility to be a major
hazard facility under regulation 705, the Authority must, as
soon as practicable after making the determination, register the
facility as a major hazard facility.
-
- (4) If the Authority grants a registration under this regulation,
the Authority must, as soon as practicable after granting the
registration, send written notice of the registration to the operator
or proposed operator.
708. Obligations on operator of registered major hazard
facility
-
- (1) The operator of a registered major hazard
facility must, within 90 days of being notified of the registration,
provide the Authority with an outline for the Safety Case the
operator proposes to attach to its application for a licence under
Part 8.
-
- (2) The outline must include--
-
- (a) a written program, that is detailed and timeframed, for the
preparation of the Safety Case, with specific reference being made to
each of the matters required by regulation 402 to be included in a Safety
Case;
-
- (b) details of the scope of consultation that will be undertaken when
preparing the Safety Case;
-
- (c) a draft of the emergency plan the operator proposes to
include in the Safety Case.
(3) The operator must make
any alterations required by the Authority.
-
- (4) The Authority must not require the operator to make any
alterations unless the Authority has--
-
- (a) informed the operator of the proposed alterations;
-
- (b) invited the operator to make written submissions; and
-
- (c) considered any submissions that are made.
(5) The
operator of a registered major hazard facility must
comply with the outline provided to the Authority under sub-regulation
(1).
-
- (6) If the outline has been altered under sub-regulation (3), the
operator must comply with the outline as so altered.
709. Expiry of registration
-
- (1) Registration under this Part expires--
-
- (a) in the case of a major hazard facility that is
registered under regulation 707(1)--30 months (or such shorter period
as the Authority specifies) after 1 July 2000, or on the issue of a
licence under Part 8, whichever is sooner;
-
- (b) in the case of a major hazard facility that is
registered under regulation 707(2)--30 months (or such shorter period
as the Authority specifies) after the date of registration, or on the
issue of a licence under Part 8, whichever is sooner;
-
- (c) in the case of a major hazard facility that is
registered under regulation 707(3)--30 months (or such shorter period
as the Authority specifies) after the date of registration, or on the
issue of a licence under Part 8, whichever is sooner.
(2) The
Authority may specify a shorter expiry period under this regulation if
the Authority is of the opinion that the operator is able to--
-
- (a) prepare a Safety Case in accordance with Part 4; and
-
- (b) satisfy the Authority as to the matters specified in
regulation 803(1).
_______________
PART 8--LICENSING
801. Only licensed or registered major hazard facility to be operated
-
- (1) A person must not operate a major hazard facility unless--
-
- (a) it is licensed under this Part; or
-
- (b) if not licensed under this Part, it is registered under Part
7.
(2) A person who contravenes this regulation is guilty of an
indictable offence.
802. Application for licence
-
- (1) The operator of a major hazard facility who seeks a
licence for the operation of a major hazard facility must make an
application under this regulation.
-
- (2) An application for a licence must--
-
- (a) identify the applicant and the major hazard facility;
-
- (b) be accompanied by the Safety Case prepared in accordance with
Part 4;
-
- (c) contain such particulars and be accompanied by such further material
as the Authority determines.
(3) If the licence is sought for
a registered major hazard facility, the application must be made at
least 6 months before the expiry of registration under regulation 709.
803. Grant of licence
-
- (1) If the Authority is satisfied that--
-
- (a) the Safety Case has been prepared in accordance with
regulation 402;
-
- (b) the applicant has complied with the provisions of Part 3;
-
- (c) the applicant has the ability to operate the major hazard
facility safely;
-
- (d) the applicant has complied with the provisions of Part
5--
the Authority must notify the applicant that a licence will be granted
on payment of the fee calculated in accordance with Schedule 5.
-
- (2) Notification under sub-regulation (1) must be given within 6 months
after the date of the application.
-
- (3) On payment of the fee, the Authority must grant the licence.
-
- (4) A licence granted under this Part must--
-
- (a) be in the form approved by the Authority;
-
- (b) specify the facility, the operator and the Schedule 1
materials in relation to which it is granted;
-
- (c) specify the date from which the grant of the licence is effective;
-
- (d) specify its term, which must not exceed 5 years.
804. Renewal
-
- (1) A person who seeks the renewal of a licence for the operation of a
major hazard facility must make an application under this regulation.
-
- (2) An application for the renewal of a licence must--
-
- (a) be made at least 6 months before the expiry of the licence being
renewed;
-
- (b) be accompanied by a revised Safety Case prepared in
accordance with Part 4;
-
- (c) contain such particulars and be accompanied by such further material
as the Authority determines.
(3) If the Authority
continues to be satisfied as to the matters set out in regulation 803(1), the
Authority must notify the applicant that the licence will be renewed on
payment of the fee calculated in accordance with Schedule 5.
-
- (4) Notification under sub-regulation (3) must be given within 6 months
after the date of the application.
-
- (5) On payment of the fee, the Authority must renew the licence.
-
- (6) A renewed licence must--
-
- (a) be in the form approved by the Authority;
-
- (b) specify the facility, the operator and the Schedule 1
materials in relation to which it is granted;
-
- (c) specify the date from which the renewal of the licence is effective;
-
- (d) specify its term, which must not exceed 5 years.
805. Terms and conditions
-
- (1) In granting or renewing a licence under this Part, the
Authority may attach such terms and conditions as it considers
necessary for the purposes of these Regulations.
-
- (2) The operator of the licensed major hazard facility must
comply with the terms and conditions attached to the licence.
-
- (3) The Authority may, during the period of operation of a licence,
vary the terms and conditions attached to it.
-
- (4) If the Authority varies terms and conditions under
sub-regulation (3), the operator must comply with the terms and
conditions as so varied.
806. TransferThe Authority may transfer a licence to
another person who is to become the operator of the licensed major
hazard facility if the Authority is satisfied that the person to whom
the licence is to be transferred is capable of achieving a level of health and
safety for the operation of the major hazard facility that
is at least equivalent to that achieved by the holder of the licence.
807. Availability of copy for inspection
-
- (1) A person to whom a licence, including a renewed licence, is granted
under this Part must ensure that a copy of the licence--
-
- (a) is kept at the place specified in the licence;
-
- (b) is made available on request to--
-
- (i) an inspector;
-
- (ii) an employee of the operator working at the major
hazard facility;
-
- (iii) the emergency services who have responsibility for the
area in which the major hazard facility is
located.
-
- (2) The terms and conditions attached to a licence, including any
variation of those terms and conditions, must also be kept and made available
under this regulation.
808. Suspension and cancellation
-
- (1) The Authority may, at any time during the operation of a
licence granted or renewed under this Part, suspend or cancel the licence
under this regulation.
-
- (2) The Authority may suspend or cancel a licence if the
Authority is satisfied that--
-
- (a) the Safety Management System for the licensed major hazard
facility no longer provides a comprehensive and integrated management
system for all aspects of control measures adopted in relation to
hazards and major incidents; or
-
- (b) control measures adopted by the operator under regulation 304
are seriously deficient; or
-
- (c) the operator who holds the licence for the major hazard
facility is, on three or more occasions during the term of the licence,
convicted or found guilty, in relation to the operation of the major
hazard facility, of contravening or failing to comply with--
-
- (i) regulation 301, 304, 306 or 801; or
-
- (ii) a provision of Part III of the Act, in circumstances that would
also constitute or include a contravention of or failure to comply with
regulation 301, 304 or 306;
-
- (d) the operator who holds the licence for the major hazard
facility no longer understands the content of the Safety Assessment
conducted under regulation 303; or
-
- (e) the operator who holds the licence for the major hazard
facility no longer has the ability to operate the major hazard
facility safely; or
-
- (f) the licence was obtained, whether initially or on renewal, on the
basis of false or misleading information or a failure to disclose particular
information.
809. Surrender of licenceIf the
Authority suspends or cancels a licence under regulation 808, the
operator who holds the licence must, once the suspension or cancellation
takes effect, surrender the licence to the Authority or an inspector on
demand.
810. Notification in Government Gazette
-
- (1) The Authority must cause to be published in the Government
Gazette a notice of the grant, renewal, transfer, suspension or cancellation
of a licence under this Part.
-
- (2) A notice under this regulation must include details of any terms and
conditions attached to the licence, including any variation of such terms and
conditions.
_______________
PART 9--PROTECTION OF PROPERTY
901. Control measuresThe operator of a major hazard
facility must, in relation to those Schedule 1 materials that are
dangerous goods, adopt control measures so as to eliminate or, if it not
practicable to eliminate, to reduce so far as is practicable the extent of
damage to property caused by a major incident.
902. Property Protection Assessment
-
- (1) For the purpose of complying with regulation 901, the operator
of a major hazard facility must conduct a comprehensive and systematic
Property Protection Assessment in relation to all potential major
incidents and all hazards identified under regulation 302.
-
- (2) A Property Protection Assessment must involve an investigation and
analysis of the hazards and major incidents which provide the
operator with a detailed understanding of--
-
- (a) the likelihood of any major incident occurring;
-
- (b) in the event of a major incident occurring--
-
- (i) its magnitude; and
-
- (ii) the extent of property damage that might be caused;
(c)
the range of control measures considered.
(3) In conducting a
Property Protection Assessment, the operator must--
-
- (a) consider hazards cumulatively as well as individually; and
-
- (b) use assessment methodologies (whether quantitative or qualitative,
or both) that are appropriate to the hazards being
considered.
(4) The operator must document all aspects of the
Property Protection Assessment, and the documentation must--
-
- (a) describe the methodologies used in the investigation and analysis;
-
- (b) state all the matters specified in paragraphs (a) to (c) in
sub-regulation (2);
-
- (c) contain judgments as to the matters specified in paragraphs (a) and
(b) of sub-regulation (2), and reasons for those judgments;
-
- (d) contain, in relation to the range of control measures--
-
- (i) statements as to their viability and effectiveness; and
-
- (ii) reasons for selecting certain control measures and rejecting
others; and
(e) be made available for inspection by the
Authority or an inspector.
(5) The operator may--
-
- (a) conduct and document the Property Protection Assessment required by
this regulation in conjunction with the Safety Assessment required by
regulation 303;
-
- (b) incorporate the contents of the Property Protection Assessment into
the Safety Management System established and documented under
regulation 301.
903. Exemption from Part 9
-
- (1) The Authority may exempt a person from a requirement in this
Part if the Authority is satisfied that the person is capable of
achieving a level of safety of property, that is at least equivalent to the
level that would be achieved if the requirement had been complied with.
-
- (2) If the Authority grants an exemption under sub-regulation (1),
the Authority may attach such terms and conditions as the
Authority considers reasonable, including terms and conditions in
relation to--
-
- (a) the commencement and duration of the exemption;
-
- (b) control measures to be adopted by the person to whom the exemption
is granted for the elimination or reduction of risk to property associated
with major incidents;
-
- (c) a requirement that the person exempted give notice of the exemption
and of the terms and conditions of the exemption to any specified person who
may be affected.
(3) If a person requests an exemption, the
Authority must not refuse to grant the exemption unless the
Authority has--
-
- (a) invited the person to make written submissions;
-
- (b) specified a date, not less than 14 days after the date of the
invitation, by which the person may make the submissions;
-
- (c) considered any submissions that are made by the specified
date.
-
- (4) If the Authority grants an exemption under this regulation, the
Authority must cause a notice of the exemption, including any terms and
conditions attached to the exemption, to be published in the Government
Gazette.
_______________
PART 10--AMENDMENT TO DANGEROUS GOODS (STORAGE AND HANDLING)
REGULATIONS 1989
1001. Exemption from Dangerous Goods (Storage and Handling)
RegulationsFor regulation 110 of the Dangerous Goods (Storage and
Handling) Regulations 1989, substitute--
-
- "110. Exemptions
-
- (1) The Authority may exempt a person, premises, thing or activity or a
class of people, premises, things or activities from any or all of the
provisions of these Regulations if the Authority is satisfied that--
-
- (a) compliance with the relevant provision or provisions is not
practicable in the circumstances;
-
- (b) if a person, or class of persons, is to be exempted, the person or
the class is, in relation to the storage and handling of dangerous goods,
capable of achieving a level of health and safety of people, and safety of
property, that is at least equivalent to the level that would be achieved if
the relevant provision or provisions had been complied with;
-
- (c) if a premises, thing or activity, or a class of premises, things or
activities, is to be exempted, there can be achieved, in relation to the
storage and handling of dangerous goods, a level of health and safety
of people, and safety of property, that is at least equivalent to the level
that would be achieved if the relevant provision or provisions had been
complied with.
(2) An exemption granted by the Authority under this
regulation or under regulation 110A(1)--
-
- (a) must be in writing;
-
- (b) may be subject to any conditions specified by the Authority; (c)
must specify--
-
- (i) the thing or activity or the class of things or activities for
which the exemption has been granted;
-
- (ii) the person or class of people to whom the exemption has been
granted;
-
- (iii) the premises or class of premises for which the exemption has
been granted;
-
- (iv) the provision or provisions of these Regulations from which the
exemption has been granted;
-
- (v) the conditions (if any) to which the exemption is
subject.
(3) A person to whom an exemption is granted under
this regulation or under regulation 110A(1) must comply with each specified
condition to which the exemption is subject.
-
- 110A. Exemptions for major hazard facilities
-
- (1) The Authority may exempt a person who is operating a major hazard
facility that is licensed under the Occupational Health and Safety (Major
Hazard Facilities) Regulations 2000 from any or all of the provisions of these
Regulations if the Authority is satisfied that the person is, in relation to
the storage and handling of dangerous goods at the facility, capable of
achieving a level of health and safety of people, and safety of property, that
is at least equivalent to the level that would be achieved if the relevant
provision or provisions had been complied with.
-
- (2) A person who is operating a major hazard facility that is licensed
under the Occupational Health and Safety (Major Hazard Facilities) Regulations
2000 is not required to hold a licence under these Regulations in relation to
the operation of that facility.".
__________________
SCHEDULES
SCHEDULE 1
MATERIALS AT MAJOR HAZARD FACILITIES (AND THEIR THRESHOLD
QUANTITY)
1. Relevant materials
The materials which characterise a workplace as a facility for the
purposes of these Regulations are the materials specifically mentioned in Table
1 and materials that belong to the types, classes and categories mentioned in
Table 2.
2. "Threshold quantity" of one material
(1) In relation to each such material, the third column of each Table
provides a quantity that is described as the "threshold quantity" of that
material.
(2) Where a material is mentioned in Table 1, the threshold quantity
of the material is that described in Table 1, whether or not the material also
belongs to a type, class or category mentioned in Table 2.
(3) Where a material is not mentioned in Table 1, and where the material
belongs to a type, class or category mentioned in Table 2, the threshold
quantity of that material is that of the type, class or category to which it
belongs.
(4) Where a material is not mentioned in Table 1, and where the material
appears to belong to more than one of the types, classes or categories mentioned
in Table 2, the threshold quantity of that material is that of the
relevant type, class or category which has the lower or lowest threshold
quantity.
3. "Threshold quantity" of more than one material
If there is more than one material, a threshold quantity of materials
exists where, if a number of materials are present, the result of the following
aggregation formula exceeds 1:
|
qx
|
+
|
qy
|
+
|
....
|
+
|
qn
|
|
Qx
|
|
Qy
|
|
|
|
Qn
|
Where--
* x, y, ... and n are the materials present or likely to be present;
* qx, qy ..... and qn is the quantity of materials x, y, ... and n present or
likely to be present, other than--
(i) material that is present or likely to be present in an isolated
quantity less than 2% of its individual threshold quantity;
(ii) materials that are solely the subject of intermediate temporary storage,
while in transit by road or rail;* Qx, Qy ..... Qn is the individual
threshold quantity for each material x, y ... and n;
* a material is present or likely to be present in an "isolated
quantity", if its location at the facility is such that it cannot, on
its own, act as an initiator of a major incident.
_______________
TABLE 1The UN number listed against the named material
is given for information only. It does not restrict the meaning of the name,
which also applies to materials which fall outside the UN number, for example,
because they are too dangerous to transport or are part of mixtures covered by
another UN number. However, any materials which are covered by the listed UN
numbers must be included in the quantity of the material named.
|
MATERIAL
|
UN Nos INCLUDED UNDER NAME
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
ACETONE CYANOHYDRIN
|
1541
|
20
|
|
ACETYLENE
|
1001
|
50
|
|
ACROLEIN
|
1092
|
200
|
|
ACRYLONITRILE
|
1093
|
200
|
|
ALLYL ALCOHOL
|
1098
|
20
|
|
ALLYLAMINE
|
2334
|
200
|
|
AMMONIA, ANHYDROUS, LIQUEFIED or AMMONIA SOLUTIONS, relative density
less than 0·880 at 15 Deg. C in water, with more than 50 per cent ammonia
|
1005
|
200
|
|
AMMONIUM NITRATE FERTILISERS
|
2067
2068
2069
2070
|
5000
|
|
AMMONIUM NITRATE, with not more than 0·2 per cent combustible
substances, including any organic substance calculated as carbon, to the
exclusion of any other added substance
|
1942
|
2500
|
|
ARSENIC PENTOXIDE, Arsenic (V) Acid and other salts
|
1559
|
10
|
|
ARSENIC TRIOXIDE, Arsenious (III) Acid and other salts
|
1561
|
0·1
|
|
MATERIAL
|
UN Nos INCLUDED UNDER NAME
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
ARSINE
|
2188
|
0·01
|
|
BROMINE or BROMINE SOLUTIONS
|
1744
|
100
|
|
CARBON DISULFIDE
|
1131
|
200
|
|
CHLORINE
|
1017
|
25
|
|
DIOXINS
|
---
|
0·1
|
|
DIPHENYLMETHANE 4.4'-DIISOCYANATE
|
2489
|
200
|
|
ETHYL NITRATE
|
---
|
50
|
|
ETHYLENE DIBROMIDE
|
1605
|
50
|
|
ETHYLENE OXIDE
|
1040
|
50
|
|
ETHYLENEIMINE
|
1185
|
50
|
|
FLUORINE
|
1045
|
25
|
|
FORMALDEHYDE
|
1198
2209
|
50
|
|
HYDROFLUORIC ACID SOLUTION (greater than 50 per cent)
|
1790
|
50
|
|
HYDROGEN
|
1049
|
50
|
|
HYDROGEN CHLORIDE
- Anhydrous
- Refrigerated Liquid
|
1050
2186
|
250
250
|
|
HYDROGEN CYANIDE
|
1051
1614
|
20
|
|
HYDROGEN FLUORIDE
|
1052
|
50
|
|
HYDROGEN SULFIDE
|
1053
|
50
|
|
LP GASES
|
1011
1012
1075
1077
1978
|
200
|
|
MATERIAL
|
UN Nos INCLUDED UNDER NAME
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
METHYL BROMIDE
|
1062
|
200
|
|
METHANE or NATURAL GAS
|
1971
1972
|
200
|
|
METHYL ISOCYANATE
|
2480
|
0·15
|
|
OXIDES OF NITROGEN, including nitrous oxide, nitrogen dioxide and
nitrogen trioxide
|
1067
1070
1660
1975
2201
2421
|
50
|
|
OXYGEN
|
1072
1073
|
2000
|
|
PHOSGENE
|
1076
|
0·75
|
|
PROPYLENEIMINE
|
1921
|
200
|
|
PROPYLENE OXIDE
|
1280
|
50
|
|
SODIUM CHLORATE, solid
|
1495
|
200
|
|
SULFURIC ANHYDRIDE (Alt. SULFUR TRIOXIDE)
|
1829
|
75
|
|
SULFUR DICHLORIDE
|
1828
|
1
|
|
SULFUR DIOXIDE, LIQUEFIED
|
1079
|
200
|
|
TOLUENE DIISOCYANATE
|
2078
|
200
|
_______________
TABLE 2Notes
1. The quantities specified for explosives relate to the weight of explosive
exclusive of packing, casings and non-explosive components.
2. If explosives of different Hazard Divisions are present in the same area
or storage, all of the explosives shall be classified in accordance with
the following table:
|
Div
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
1.3
|
1.4
|
1.5
|
1.6
|
|
1.1A
|
1.1A
|
1.1A
|
1.1A
|
1.1A
|
1.1A
|
|
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
|
1.2
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
|
1.3
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.3
|
1.3
|
1.1
|
1.3
|
|
1.4
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
1.3
|
1.4
|
1.5
|
1.6
|
|
1.5
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.1
|
1.5
|
1.5
|
1.5
|
|
1.6
|
1.1
|
1.2
|
1.3
|
1.6
|
1.5
|
1.6
|
|
MATERIAL
|
DESCRIPTION
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
Explosive materials
|
* Explosive of Class 1.1A
|
10
|
|
* All other Explosives of Class 1.1
|
50
|
|
* Explosive of Class 1.2
|
200
|
|
* Explosive of Class 1.3
|
200
|
|
Compressed and liquefied gases
|
* Compressed or liquefied gases of Class 2.1 or Subsidiary Risk
2.1
|
200
|
|
* Liquefied gases of Subsidiary Risk 5
|
200
|
|
MATERIAL
|
DESCRIPTION
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
* Compressed or liquefied gases which meet the criteria for Very Toxic
in Table 3
|
20
|
|
* Compressed or liquefied gases which meet the criteria for Toxic in
Table 3
|
200
|
|
Flammable materials
|
* Liquids which meet the criteria for Class 3 Packing
Group I Materials (except for crude oil in remote locations)
|
200
|
|
* Crude oil in remote locations which meet the criteria for
Class 3 Packing Group I
|
2000
|
|
* Liquids which meet the criteria for Class 3 Packing
Group II or III
|
50000
|
|
* Liquids with flashpoints <610C kept above their boiling
points at ambient conditions
|
200
|
|
* Materials which meet the criteria for Class 4.1 Packing
Group I
|
200
|
|
MATERIAL
|
DESCRIPTION
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
* Spontaneously combustible materials which meet the criteria for
Class 4.2 Packing Group I or II
|
200
|
|
* Materials which liberate flammable gases or react violently on
contact with water which meet the criteria for Class 4.3 Packing
Group I or II
|
200
|
|
* Materials which belong to Classes 3 or 8 Packing Group
I or II which have Hazchem codes of 4WE (materials which react
violently with water)
|
500
|
|
Oxidising Materials
|
* Oxidising material listed in Appendix 5 of the ADG Code
|
50
|
|
* Oxidising materials that meet the criteria for Class 5.1
Packing Group I or II
|
200
|
|
Peroxides
|
* Peroxides which are listed in Appendix 5 to the ADG Code
|
50
|
|
* Organic Peroxides which meet the criteria for Class 5.2
|
200
|
|
MATERIAL
|
DESCRIPTION
|
THRESHOLD QUANTITY (tonnes)
|
|
Toxic Solids and liquids (other than materials which are classified
as Infectious Substances (Class 6.2) or as Radioactive (Class 7))
|
* Materials which meet the criteria for Very Toxic in Table 3
|
20
|
|
* Materials which meet the criteria for Toxic in Table 3
|
200
|
_______________
TABLE 3: CRITERIA FOR TOXICITYNote: These
criteria are in accordance with the ADG Code
|
Description
|
Oral Toxicity1
LD50 (mg/kg)
|
Dermal Toxicity2
LD50 (mg/kg)
|
Inhalation Toxicity3
LC50 (mg/L)
|
|
Very Toxic
|
LD50<5
|
LD50<40
|
LC50<0.5
|
|
Toxic
|
5<LD50<50
|
50<LD50<200
|
0.5<LC50<2
|
1. In rats
2. In rats or rabbits
3. Four hours in rats
_______________
SCHEDULE 2
Regulation 301(4)(e)
ADDITIONAL MATTERS TO BE INCLUDED IN SAFETY MANAGEMENT
SYSTEM
1. Safety policy and safety objectives
1.1 A description of the means by which the operator's safety policy
and specific safety objectives are to be communicated to all persons who are to
participate in the implementation of the Safety Management System.
1.2 The safety policy must include an express commitment to ongoing
improvement of all aspects of the Safety Management System.
2. Organisation and personnel
2.1 The identification (according to position description and location) of
the persons who are to participate in the implementation of the Safety
Management System, and a description of the command structure in which these
persons work and of the specific tasks and responsibilities allocated to them.
2.2 The means of ensuring that these persons have the knowledge and skills
necessary to enable them to perform their allocated tasks and discharge their
allocated responsibilities, and that they retain such knowledge and skills.
3. Operational controls
3.1 A description of the procedures and instructions for--
(a) the safe operation of plant (including as to inspection and maintenance);
(b) the mechanical integrity of plant;
(c) plant processes;
(d) the control of abnormal operations and emergency shut down or
decommissioning.
3.2 Provision of adequate means of achieving isolation of the major hazard
facility or any part of the major hazard facility in the event
of an emergency.
3.3 Provision of adequate means of gaining access for servicing and
maintenance of the major hazard facility or any part of the
major hazard facility.
3.4 A description of the roles of persons and of the interfaces between
persons and plant.
3.5 Provision for alarm systems.
4. Compliance with Part 3 & Part 5 of these Regulations
4.1 In relation to each part of the documented Safety Management
System that describes the means of compliance with Part 3 of these
Regulations, an annotation or cross-reference identifying the specific provision
of these Regulations being complied with.
4.2 A description of the means by which the operator proposes to
comply with Part 5. 5. Management of change
5.1 A description of the procedures for planning modifications to
major hazard facilities.
6. Principles and standards
6.1 A statement of the principles, especially the design principles and
engineering standards, being used to ensure the safe operation of the major
hazard facility.
6.2 A description of any technical standards, whether published or
proprietary, being relied on in relation to such principles and standards.
7. Performance monitoring
7.1 Performance standards for measuring the effectiveness of the Safety
Management System, which--
(a) relate to all aspects of the Safety Management System;
(b) are sufficiently detailed to ensure that the ability of the
operator to ensure the effectiveness of all aspects of the Safety
Management System is apparent from the documentation;
(c) include steps to be taken to continually improve all aspects of the
Safety Management System.
7.2 A description of the way in which these performance standards are to be
met.
7.3 Performance indicators for the effectiveness of control measures adopted,
including--
(a) tests of the effectiveness of the control measures;
(b) indicators of the failure of any control measure; (c) actions to be taken
in reporting any such failure;
(d) other corrective actions to be taken in the event of any such failure.
8. Audit
8.1 Provision for the audit of performance against the performance standards,
including the methodologies, frequency and results of the audit process.
_______________
SCHEDULE 3Regulation 305(3)(b)
MATTERS TO BE INCLUDED IN EMERGENCY PLAN
1. Site and hazard detail
1.1 The name, location, postal address and nature of the operations of the
major hazard facility.
1.2 A detailed map of--
(a) the site of the major hazard facility;
(b) the area surrounding the site showing details of residents, the built and
natural environment, closely located major hazard facilities and
all other neighbours whose health or safety could be adversely affected by a
major incident. This map should also identify all potentially hazardous
inventories in the area that are known to the operator, and the location
of all staging points for emergency services.
1.3 Inventory of Schedule 1 materials present or likely to be
present at the major hazard facility.
1.4 Minimum and maximum number of employees expected to be on-site at
any one time, and their likely or normal location within the major hazard
facility.
1.5 Infrastructure likely to be affected by a major incident--for
example, utilities, road, rail, airport or shipping.
1.6 Emergency planning assumptions, including emergency measures planned for
identified major incidents, area likely to be affected, duration of
events, protection of the local community, including other nearby
facilities, and the built and natural environment.
1.7 For each hazard and major incident, a description of the
measures taken and to be taken to control or limit the consequences, including a
description of all protective resources available and all emergency response
procedures.
2. Command structure and site personnel
2.1 The operator's command philosophy and structure that is activated
in case of an emergency, including relevant positions within the organisational
structure, the duties attached to them and the names of the persons assigned to
them.
2.2 The name, title and telephone number of the contact person with whom
details of the content of the plan can be clarified.
2.3 The position, location and means of contacting the persons at the
facility who are responsible for liaison with emergency services
and who have knowledge of the hazards, their likely consequences and the
content of the emergency plan. In case the nominated persons are not on-site a
list of 24 hour emergency contact names and telephone numbers shall be supplied.
2.4 The allocation of personnel and the responsibilities of those personnel
for implementing the plan including establishing communication with emergency
services and coordinating the operator's employees and
resources with those of the emergency services. 2.5 Arrangements for
providing assistance to emergency services with off-site mitigatory
action, and nearby facilities which might require mutual aid in the event
of a major incident.
3. Notifications
3.1 Procedures in place for providing early warning of a major
incident to emergency services, the type of information to be
initially provided, and for providing more detailed information as it becomes
available.
3.2 On-site and off-site warning systems.
3.3 Contact details for emergency services and other support services
that can assist in procuring resources, implementing evacuation plans and
securing the major hazard facility in the event of a major
incident.
3.4 Communication systems on-site.
4. Resources
4.1 Emergency resources on-site, for example, personnel, emergency equipment,
gas detectors and wind velocity detectors.
4.2 Arrangements for obtaining additional external resources to assist the
control and mitigation of hazards and major incidents.
5. Procedures
5.1 Procedures for the safe evacuation of, and accounting for, all people on
site. 5.2 Control points and procedures for utilities, including gas, water and
electricity.
5.3 Containment procedures for any incident, whether or not a major
incident, involving Schedule 1 materials.
5.4 Resources and procedures necessary for decontamination following a
major incident.
_______________
SCHEDULE 4Regulation 402(1)(c)
ADDITIONAL MATTERS TO BE INCLUDED IN SAFETY CASE
A. FACILITY DESCRIPTION
1. The facility
(a) A description of the main activities and products of the major hazard
facility, particularly those activities associated with Schedule 1
materials.
(b) A description of the Schedule 1 materials and any other
dangerous goods present or likely to be present.
(c) In relation to those materials and dangerous goods--
(i) their identification by name and by any other means necessary for a clear
identification;
(ii) the quantity present or likely to be present at the major
hazard facility;
(iii) their physical, chemical and toxicological characteristics, and any
other hazardous characteristics, both immediate and delayed;
(iv) their physical and chemical behaviour under normal conditions of use or
under foreseeable abnormal conditions.
(d) A description of the chemical and physical processes associated with any
Schedule 1 materials, including--
(i) the main units of process equipment used in those processes;
(ii) a process flow drawing, or set of such drawings, describing the
processes.
(e) A drawing of the major hazard facility's general layout,
containing the location of--
(i) the main process units;
(ii) the main storage areas; and
(iii) hazards and major incident initiators.
(f) In relation to proposed changes at the major hazard facility, for
which no new control measures are adopted--
(i) a description of any proposed changes to the major hazard
facility, which would alter the production capacity or profile of the
major hazard facility, or which would involve the deletion, addition or
modification of any processes; and
(ii) a statement as to how existing control measures and Safety Management
Systems are capable of maintaining the safe operation of the major hazard
facility.
2. The surrounding area
(a) A scaled plan of the facility and its surrounding area showing--
(i) the location of the facility within the surrounding area;
(ii) topographical information;
(iii) surrounding land uses;
(iv) the location of any identified external threats (including other
major hazard facilities, or other facilities that could
affect the safety of the major hazard facility).
(b) Graphically presented demographic information for the local
community, including surrounding land uses permitted by the local planning
authority.
(c) Meteorological data relevant to the estimation of the effects of any
major incident.
B. SAFETY INFORMATION
1. Control measures to limit the consequences of major
incidents
(1) A detailed description of--
(a) the instrumentation and other equipment installed in the facility
and the procedures in place that constitute the control measures for preventing
or limiting the consequences of major incidents;
(b) the critical operating parameters for those control measures;
(c) key personnel and resources (internal and external) available to
intervene in the event of any failure of a control measure, whether or not that
failure results in a major incident;
(d) the emergency plan, including specific information about how these plans
can be expected to limit the consequences of a major incident;
(e) the means of ensuring that there is at all times in place a command
structure for the major hazard facility that applies in the event of an
emergency, and that this command structure has been communicated throughout the
major hazard facility.
(2) In this Clause--
"critical operating parameters" means the upper or lower performance
limits of any equipment, process or procedure, compliance with which is
necessary to avoid a major incident;
"failure of a control measure" means--
(a) where the control measure is a positive action or event, the
non-occurrence or the defective occurrence of that action or event; or (b) where
the control measure consists of a limitation on an operational activity, process
or procedure, the breach of that limitation.
2. Performance Monitoring
A detailed description of the performance standards and performance
indicators required by clause 7 of Schedule 2 to be included in the
documented Safety Management System.
3. Safety Management System
(1) At all points in the Safety Case where the matter addressed is
covered by the Safety Management System, a clear reference to the
relevant part of the documented Safety Management System.
(2) A description of those parts of the documented Safety Management
System which address the maintenance of the Safety Management System
(that is, its ongoing effective implementation and its ongoing improvement).
4. Safety and reliability of plant
A description of the steps taken to ensure that safety and reliability are
incorporated into the design and construction of all aspects of the major
hazard facility itself, whether the operator is directly engaged in
such design and construction or has engaged another person to carry out such
design and construction.
5. Incident history
A summary of the major incidents that have occurred at the major
hazard facility over the previous 5 years.
_______________
SCHEDULE 5Regulations 803 and 804
LICENCE FEES
1. The fee for the issue or renewal of a licence under Part 7 is the lesser
of--
(a) the total reached at the rate of $71 for each person-hour spent by the
Authority, its staff and other persons engaged by the Authority
for the purpose of making a decision in relation to the licence application;
(b) $50 197.
2. The activities involved in making a decision in relation to a licence
application include--
(a) checking the completeness of the Safety Case and the other
information and material accompanying the application;
(b) determining that further particulars or material are required, and
procuring such particulars or material from the applicant;
(c) verifying the information provided by the applicant by--
(i) examining the Safety Case and the other information and material
provided; and
(ii) visiting and examining the site of the major hazard facility to
which the application relates;
(d) considering and deciding on the merits of the application; and
(e) taking all necessary administrative steps.
ÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍÍ
NOTES
[1]
For ease of reference only, definitions (but not other parts of speech and
grammatical forms of a word or phrase defined) appear in bold in the text.
Section 39 of the Interpretation of Legislation Act 1984 provides that
where a word or phrase is given a particular meaning in an Act or subordinate
instrument, other parts of speech and grammatical forms of that word or phrase
have, unless the contrary intention appears, corresponding meanings.
Table of Applied, Adopted or Incorporated Matter Required by
Subordinate Legislation Regulations 1994
Note that the following table of applied, adopted or incorporated matter is
included in accordance with the requirements of regulation 6 of the Subordinate
Legislation Regulations 1994.
Statutory Rule
ProvisionTitle of applied, adopted or incorporated documentMatter in applied,
adopted or incorporated documentRegulation 104 and Schedule 1The Australian
Code for the Transport of Dangerous Goods by Road and Rail adopted by the
Commonwealth and State Ministers known as the Australian Transport Advisory
Council, as amended from time to time by resolution of the Australian Transport
Advisory Council.The whole